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QUESTION 18
What is risk exposure?
A. Amount of risk the organization, or subset of it, is willing to accept
B. Maximum amount of risk that an organization can bear
C. Combined effect of risks to a set of objectives
D. System by which organizations are directed and controlled
300-370 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which activity is focused on when the ‘aligns with objectives’ principle is applied to the project perspective?
A. Implementing business strategy to improve organizational performance
B. Developing plans to improve the overall efficiency of the organization
C. Maintaining the appropriate levels of service delivery to new and existing customers
D. Delivering defined business change products within budget and on time
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which BEST describes an area of uncertainty at the operational perspective?
A. Changes to the delivery schedule of business products
B. Conflicts during the implementation of business strategy
C. Capabilities of the infrastructure to deliver services
D. Opinions of stakeholders that may affect the organizational reputation
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which task will be carried out while performing the ‘identify – risks’ step?
A. Calculating when an identified risk is likely to occur
B. Ranking the importance of the stakeholders involved in the activity
C. Ensuring that all participants agree on the identified risks
D. Developing an appropriate response to the identified risks
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Identify the missing word in the following sentence. The impact of risks to organizational goals at the [ ? ] perspective may only become noticeable far into the future.
A. strategic
B. programme
C. project
D. operational
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which is NOT a recommended risk response option for an ‘opportunity’?
A. Enhance
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Reduce
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which is a purpose of the ‘risk management policy’?
A. Explain the actions required to implement risk management
B. Define the Specific risk management activities that will be performed for an activity
C. Describe how risk management practices will be implemented throughout an organization
D. Record information about threats and opportunities for an organizational activity
300-370 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What is the goal of the ‘assess – estimate’ step?
A. Identify the threats and opportunities facing the organizational activity
B. Estimate and agree the budget required to manage risks to the activity
C. Assess the effectiveness of the risk management processes within an organization
D. Determine the risks with the greatest effect on an activities objectives
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which BEST describes an area of uncertainty at the programme perspective?
A. Disruptions to operations during business change implementation
B. Introduction of new laws that affect core business activities
C. Availability of resources for the day-to-day delivery of services to customers
D. Changes to the scope of defined business products
300-370 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which heading in a ‘risk register is used to record the area of uncertainty?
A. Cause
B. Event
C. Effect
D. Probability
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which perspective ensures risk management maintains a view of the adequacy of controls that support service delivery to satisfy the fits the context principle?
A. Strategic
B. Programme
C. Operational
D. Project
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Which BEST describes an area of uncertainty at the programme perspective?
A. Schedule of business products to time and cost
B. Availability of skills to deliver services to new and existing customers
C. Implementing new business practices across organizational boundaries
D. Legislation that affects core business activities
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which is a common barrier to implementing the risk management process?
A. Lack of a high-risk appetite at senior management level
B. Lack of an appropriate response to a risk in an activity’s risk register
C. Lack of an assigned risk owner
D. Lack of policies, processes, strategies and plans
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
What are the M_o_R principles informed by?
A. Statements of internal control
B. International standard for risk management ISO31000:2009
C. Public Company Accounting and Reform and Investor Protection Act
D. Basel Accord (Basel II)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Who does a ‘risk actionee’ keep up to date on progress when implementing a response to a risk?
A. Senior team
B. Audit committee
C. Risk owner
D. Team
300-370 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Identify the missing word in the following sentence. Applying the ‘aligns with objectives’ principle at the [ ? ] perspective ensures risk management is responsive to changes to objectives that meet shareholder needs, reputation and demand for services.
A. operational
B. project
C. programme
D. strategic
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Which BEST describes an area of uncertainty at the programme perspective?
A. Changes to customer requirements for business products
B. Interdependences between business change initiatives
C. Ability of the infrastructure to meet the required level of service
D. Operational activities that may affect the organizational reputation
300-370 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Identify the missing words in the following sentence. Because organizations [ ? ] they need to use the environmental risk management’ specialism.
A. are concerned about stakeholder perceptions
B. see brand and reputation as key assets
C. face financial penalties for polluting waterways
D. fail to deliver minimum standards
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which action is NOT needed in order for risk management to be effective?
A. Identify the risk
B. Eliminate the risk
C. Assess the risk
D. Control the risk
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which is a benefit of effective risk management?
A. Activity plans are agreed before the activity commences
B. Staff members are better prepared to respond to incidents
C. Removes the organization’s need to take risks
D. Guarantees business benefits will be delivered
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 38
What is a ‘central risk function’?
A. A group with formal responsibility for supporting strategic risk management
B. A group that may pose a risk to objectives through its opposition to plans
C. A group responsible for approving the funding for risk management
D. A group that acts on risks escalated from other perspectives
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which is a use of the risk management policy in the ‘identify – context’ step for an activity?
A. Recording departures from the risk management process guide
B. Identifying the activity-specific categories to be used for grouping risks
C. Providing guidance on setting risk tolerance thresholds
D. Defining the records to be used
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Which effect on the organization’s objectives could the PESTLE analysis technique help to identify
A. Risk exposure trends
B. Current external factors
C. Long-term developments
D. Internal strengths
300-370 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 41
Which BEST describes an area of uncertainty at the operational perspective?
A. Variation to the schedule of a defined business product
B. Availability of skills required to deliver services to customers
C. Minimizing disruptions to customer services during transformational change
D. Damage to the organization’s infrastructure
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 42
Which M_o_R principle advocates that an organization’s risk appetite should be within the organization’s risk capacity?
A. Aligns with objectives
B. Fits the context
C. Informs decision-making
D. Provides clear guidance
300-370 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 43
Which is a benefit of effective risk management?
A. Successful completion of all change activities
B. Organizations are better prepared to recover from unplanned incidents
C. Eliminates risk-taking within an organization
D. Guarantees business benefits will be delivered
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 44
Which BEST describes the ‘reduce the threat’ risk response option?
A. Changing the planned tasks in an activity
B. Performing an action to minimise the chance of a risk impacting objectives
C. Monitoring a risk to ensure it remains within acceptable tolerance
D. Partaking in a pain/gain contract with another party for a specified risk
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 45
What is enabled by using NIC teaming?
A. Failover to another available physical NIC in the event of a physical NIC failure
B. Balancing of traffic across both active and standby NIC team members
C. Allocation of bandwidth to broadcast, multicast, and unicast traffic, based on priority
D. Transfer of data to a LUN on a FC storage system using multiple network links
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 46
Click the calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner. An administrator has configured the following traffic shaping parameters for a distributed virtual switch:
Average bandwidth: 1 Kb/s
Peak bandwidth: 4 Kb/s
Burst size: 3 Kb
What happens if a 6 Kb/s burst of data arrives at the switch port?
A. Some of the frames of the burst will be queued or dropped by the switch.
B. The burst will remain for 0.5 seconds without queuing or dropping frames.
C. The burst will remain for 1.5 seconds without queuing or dropping frames.
D. All the frames of the burst will be dropped.
300-370 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 47
Which is a component of Cisco Nexus 1000V?
A. Virtual Switch Node
B. Virtual Supervisor Module
C. Virtual Internet Module
D. Virtual Service Node
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 48
Which statement about virtual machines is true?
A. They are not aware of the underlying storage technology used.
B. They are not aware of the size of the virtual disk.
C. They are aware of the underlying storage technology used.
D. They are aware of the type of storage media used.
300-370 vce Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 49
In file-level storage virtualization, what maps the logical path of a file to the physical path name?
A. Virtual Machine File System
B. Raw Device Mapping
C. Global namespace
D. File system extent
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 50
Which technique ensures that the used capacity of the disk drives in a thin pool is uniform after a new drive is added?
A. Rebalancing
B. Reordering
C. Leveling
D. Resizing
300-370 exam Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 51
Which network component is used to connect a virtual machine to a virtual switch?
A. Virtual NIC
B. Virtual HBA
C. Physical NIC
D. Uplink port
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 52
Which event occurs when network broadcast traffic reaches the Storm Control threshold, assuming Storm Control is enabled at the switch?
A. Switch port bandwidth is extended, based on the pre-configured peak bandwidth.
B. The switch port forwards broadcast traffic partially, maintaining the traffic rate below the threshold level.
C. The switch port blocks broadcast traffic and drops subsequent broadcast frames over the next time interval.
D. Switch port bandwidth is extended, based on the pre-configured share value.
300-370 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:

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