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QUESTION 50
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
How should a router that is being used in a Frame Relay network be configured to avoid split horizon issues from preventing routing updates?
A. Configure a separate sub-interface for each PVC with a unique DLCI and subnet assigned to the sub-interface.
B. Configure each Frame Relay circuit as a point-to-point line to support multicast and broadcast traffic.
C. Configure many sub-interfaces on the same subnet.
D. Configure a single sub-interface to establish multiple PVC connections to multiple remote router interfaces.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 52
Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two.)
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
D. It requires that all access points and wireless devices use the same encryption key.
E. It includes authentication by PSK.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit.
Router1 was just successfully rebooted. Identify the current OSPF router ID for Router1.
A. 190.172.32.10
B. 208.149.23.162
C. 208.149.23.194
D. 220.173.149.10
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
What can a network administrator utilize by using PPP Layer 2 encapsulation? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN support
B. compression
C. authentication
D. sliding windows
E. multilink support
F. quality of service
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 55
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map command shown?
A. The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic.
B. The DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router.
C. The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server.
D. The DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.
E. The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 56
What is the function of the Cisco IOS command ip nat inside source static 10.1.1.5 172.35.16.5?
A. It creates a global address pool for all outside NAT transactions.
B. It establishes a dynamic address pool for an inside static address.
C. It creates dynamic source translations for all inside local PAT transactions.
D. It creates a one-to-one mapping between an inside local address and an inside global address.
E. It maps one inside source address to a range of outside global addresses.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Refer to the exhibit.
When PC1 sends an ARP request for the MAC address of PC2, network performance slows dramatically, and the switches detect an unusually high number of broadcast frames. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. The portfast feature is not enabled on all switch ports.
B. The PCs are in two different VLANs.
C. Spanning Tree Protocol is not running on the switches.
D. PC2 is down and is not able to respond to the request.
E. The VTP versions running on the two switches do not match.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
An administrator issues the command ping 127.0.0.1 from the command line prompt on a PC. If a reply is received, what does this confirm?
A. The PC has connectivity with a local host.
B. The PC has connectivity with a Layer 3 device.
C. The PC has a default gateway correctly configured.
D. The PC has connectivity up to Layer 5 of the OSI model.
E. The PC has the TCP/IP protocol stack correctly installed.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic. What two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the two routers and satisfy the requests of the network administrator? (Choose two.)
A. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise all routes to CentralRouter.
B. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise summarized routes to CentralRouter.
C. a static route on InternetRouter to direct traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to CentralRouter.
D. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise all routes to InternetRouter.
E. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise summarized routes to InternetRouter.
F. a static, default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter.
Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 61
What are some of the advantages of using a router to segment the network? (Choose two.)
A. Filtering can occur based on Layer 3 information.
B. Broadcasts are eliminated.
C. Routers generally cost less than switches.
D. Broadcasts are not forwarded across the router.
E. Adding a router to the network decreases latency.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 62
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?
A. The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.
B. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
C. The maximum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
D. The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
E. The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
F. The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 63
There are no boot system commands in a router configuration in NVRAM. What is the fallback sequence that the router will use to find an IOS during reload?
A. TFTP server, Flash, NVRAM
B. ROM, NVRAM, TFTP server
C. NVRAM, TFTP server, ROM
D. Flash, TFTP server, ROM
E. Flash, NVRAM, ROM
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?
A. during high traffic periods
B. after broken links are re-established
C. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
D. in an improperly implemented redundant topology
E. when a dual ring topology is in use
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 65
Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
C. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an Internet registry organization
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 66
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)
A. host 1 IP address: 192.168.1.79
B. host 1 IP address: 192.168.1.64
C. host 1 default gateway: 192.168.1.78
D. host 2 IP address: 192.168.1.128
E. host 2 default gateway: 192.168.1.129
F. host 2 IP address: 192.168.1.190
Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 67
Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches? (Choose 3.)
A. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.
B. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.
C. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.
D. Switches have a higher number of ports than most bridges.
E. Bridges define broadcast domains while switches define collision domains.
F. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.
Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 68
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 69
A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?
A. a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24
B. a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24
C. a RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24
D. an OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16
E. a default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1
F. a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
Which three Layer 2 encapsulation types would be used on a WAN rather than a LAN? (Choose three.)
A. HDLC
B. Ethernet
C. Token Ring
D. PPP
E. FDDI
F. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 71
Exhibit: What can be determined from the router output shown in the graphic?
A. 200.1.1.64 is a default route.
B. The output shows that there are three default routes.
C. The output came from router R2.
D. The output came from a router that has four physical interfaces.
E. EIGRP is in use in this network.
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 72
Which additional configuration step is necessary in order to connect to an access point that has SSID broadcasting disabled?
A. Set the SSID value in the client software to public.
B. Configure open authentication on the AP and the client.
C. Set the SSID value on the client to the SSID configured on the AP.
D. Configure MAC address filtering to permit the client to connect to the AP.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 73
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
A. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
B. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
E. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 74
Refer to the graphic.
Host A has established a connection with the HTTP server attached to interface E0 of the xyz router.
Which of the following
statements describe the information contained in protocol data units sent from host A to this server?
(Choose three.)
A. The destination port number in a segment header will have a value of 80.
B. The destination port number in a segment header will have a unique value greater than or equal to 1023.
C. The destination address of a frame will be the MAC address of the HTTP server interface.
D. The destination address of a frame will be the MAC address of the E0 interface of the abc router.
E. The destination IP address of a packet will be the IP address of the E0 interface of the abc router.
F. The destination IP address of a packet will be the IP address of the network interface of the HTTP server.
Correct Answer: ADF QUESTION 75
What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
A. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device
C. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
F. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 76
What is the purpose of the command shown below?
vtp password Fl0r1da
A. It is used to validate the sources of VTP advertisements sent between switches.
B. It is used to access the VTP server to make changes to the VTP configuration.
C. It allows two VTP servers to exist in the same domain, each configured with different passwords.
D. It is the password required when promoting a switch from VTP client mode to VTP server mode.
E. It is used to prevent a switch newly added to the network from sending incorrect VLAN information to the other switches
in the domain.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 77
A network administrator needs to force a high-performance switch that is located in the MDF to become the root bridge for a redundant path switched network. What can be done to ensure that this switch assumes the role as root bridge?
A. Establish a direct link from the switch to all other switches in the network.
B. Assign the switch a higher MAC address than the other switches in the network have.
C. Configure the switch so that it has a lower priority than other switches in the network.
D. Configure the switch for full-duplex operation and configure the other switches for half-duplex operation.
E. Connect the switch directly to the MDF router, which will force the switch to assume the role of root bridge.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
Refer to the exhibit.
Given the output of the Floor3 switch, what statement describes the operation of this switch?
A. VTP is disabled on this switch.
B. The switch can create, change, and delete VLANs.
C. The switch learns VLAN information but does not save it to NVRAM.
D. The switch can create VLANs locally but will not forward this information to other switches.
E. The switch learns VLAN information and updates the local VLAN data base in NVRAM.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
What is the effect of the following access list condition? access-list 101 permit ip 10.25.30.0
0.0.0.255 any
A. permit all packets matching the first three octets of the source address to all destinations
B. permit all packets matching the last octet of the destination address and accept all source addresses
C. permit all packets from the third subnet of the network address to all destinations
D. permit all packets matching the host bits in the source address to all destinations
E. permit all packets to destinations matching the first three octets in the destination address
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 80
Refer to the exhibit.
Hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other but are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between VLANs?
A. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches
B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
D. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 81
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
E. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 82
The show interfaces serial 0/0 command resulted in the output shown in the graphic.
What are possible causes for this interface status? (Choose three.)
A. The interface is shut down.
B. No keepalive messages are received.
C. The clockrate is not set.
D. No loopback address is set.
E. No cable is attached to the interface.
F. There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type.
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 83
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2.
Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 84
On which types of network will OSPF elect a backup designated router?
A. point-to-point and multiaccess
B. point-to-multipoint and multiaccess
C. point-to-point and point-to-multipoint
D. nonbroadcast and broadcast multipoint
E. nonbroadcast and broadcast multiaccess
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 85
This graphic shows the results of an attempt to open a Telnet connection to router ACCESS1 from router Remote27.
Which of the following command sequences will correct this problem?
A. ACCESS1(config)# line console 0 ACCESS1(config-line)# password cisco
B. Remote27(config)# line console 0 Remote27(config-line)# login Remote27(config-line)# password
cisco
C. ACCESS1(config)# line vty 0 4 ACCESS1(config-line)# login ACCESS1(config-line)# password cisco
D. Remote27(config)# line vty 0 4 Remote27(config-line)# login Remote27(config-line)# password cisco
E. ACCESS1(config)# enable password cisco
F. Remote27(config)# enable password cisco
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 86
Refer to the exhibit.
Subnet 10.1.3.0/24 is unknown to router RTB. Which router command will prevent router RTB from dropping a packet destined for the 10.1.3.0/24 network if a default route is configured?
A. ip classless
B. ip default-network
C. network 10.1.1.0
D. network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
Which statement accurately describes a benefit provided by VTP?
A. VTP allows routing between VLANs.
B. VTP allows a single port to carry information to more than one VLAN.
C. VTP allows physically redundant links while preventing switching loops.
D. VTP allows switches to share VLAN configuration information.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 88
Refer to the exhibit.
What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A. 1 – Ethernet crossover cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – fiber optic cable 4 – rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet straight-through cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – null modem cable
D. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – rollover cable
E. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable 2 – Ethernet crossover cable 3 – serial cable 4 – Ethernet straight-through cable
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are shown. What is a possible problem?
A. The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down.
B. TCP/IP is not functioning on Host1
C. The link between Router1 and Router2 is down.
D. The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect.
E. Interface Fa0/0 on Router1 is shutdown.
F. The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.
Correct Answer: C
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