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QUESTION 32
Which functions enable load sharing through NAT? (Choose two.)
A. enable TCP load distribution
B. map the protocol ports that will be used
C. create DNS entries for the inside addresses
D. map an outside address to a group of inside addresses
E. configure each server with the group of inside addresses
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 33
Which prerequisite must be met on a Cisco switch prior to configuring VLANs?
A. an RSM must be present.
B. IP routing must be enabled.
C. A VTP domain must be configured.
D. The switch must be equipped with an MSFC.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34
What is the purpose of the dialer-list command when configuring a router to initiate a dial-on-demand routing ISDN can
A. It defines call destination parameters.
B. It defines what constitutes interesting traffic.
C. It provides for optional call parameters.
D. It assigns a dialer-group to an interface.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 35
You are configuring a VLAN trunk *** Fast Ethernet. Which trunking mode enables the port to become a trunk if the link partner requests it?
A. Auto
B. Negotiate
C. Designate
D. Nonegetiate
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 36
What is the next step after configuring a static VLAN?
A. define switch-port speed
B. enable IP routing for inter VLAN routing
C. assign switch-ports to the newly defined VLAN
D. configure VTP domain for transparent VTP mode
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
From the figure, which frame-relay-map command would configure a static address mapping from the central site to the branch site?
A. frame-relay map ip 10.10.12.2 328 broadcast ietf
B. frame-relay map ip 10.10.12.2 200 broadcast cisco
C. frame-relay map ip 10.10.12.1 200 broadcast cisco
D. frame-relay map ip 10.10.12.1 328 broadcast ietf
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
How do you specify the trunking encapsulation ****** for port on a Catalyst 3500XL switch?
A. Switch(config)#vtp mode
B. Switch(config-if)#set trunk
C. Switch(config-if)# encapsulation
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
How do VLANs solve the scalability problems found in large, flat networks? (Choose three.)
A. by limiting CDP frames
B. by limiting BPDU frames
C. by providing routing functionality
D. by limiting the flooding of multicast frames
E. by limiting the flooding of broadcast frames
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 40
From the figure, which command would enable to central router do dynamically ***** the rate at which it sends packets to the branch site over the Frame Relay network?
A. frame-relay traffic-rate adaptive
B. frame-relay adaptive-shaping fecn
C. frame-relay adaptive-shaping been
D. frame-relay traffic-rate dynamic
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Which QoS technique avoids the problems that occur when tail drop is used as the congestion avoidance mechanism on the router?
A. RSVP
B. WRED
C. CAR
D. CBWFQ
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
What are two methods of stopping VLAN broadcasts from flooding *** that do NOT need these broadcast frames? (Choose two)
A. enabling VLAN authentication
B. enabling VTP pruning on the switch
C. removing VLANs with the clear trunk command
D. removing VLANs with the clear VTP NVRAM command
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 43
Which command will change the specified Frame Relay encapsulation for specific PVC on an interface?
A. no frame-relay encapsulation ietf
B. no frame-relay encapsulation cisco
C. encapsulation frame-relay ietf
D. frame-relay map ip 10.160.2.1 100 broadcast ietf
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which technology manages multicast traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ***** interfaces dynamically to forward multicast traffic only to those interfaces that want to receive it?
A. IGMP
B. IGMP snooping
C. PIM-DM
D. DVMRP
E. MOSPF
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
Which two statements about VLANS and broadcast *** true? (Choose two.)
A. Fewer network devices reduce broadcast traffic
B. Multicast packets are always broadcast in VLANs
C. BPDU frames are not propagated when ***** VLANs
D. Broadcasts are dropped at the router interface for each logical network.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 46
Which command is used to specify protocols *********** for incoming asynchronous dial-up connections?
A. modem inout
B. async-group in
C. access-group async
D. transport input
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
Some Cisco Supervisor Engines have modular unlink ports so that a module can be selected to provide an appropriate level of bandwidth. Which two features CK valid on a 2-port 1000Base SX or 1000Base LX modular uplink ****** (Choose two.)
A. 10/100 Autosensing
B. Fast EtherChannel
C. ISL
D. 802.1Q/p
E. 1.3 rewrite
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 48
Bridging LANs helps to ******* a CSMA/CD environment by reducing the size of the collision domain. However , it fails to address which problem?
A. excessive CRC errors
B. media-type mismatches
C. flooding of BPDU frame
D. excessive broadcast frame
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
Which three of the following routing IOS commands defines “interesting” traffic for only one host using dial on demand routing (DDR)? (Choose three.)
A. RTA (config) #dialer-list 1 ip permit 10.1.1.1
B. RTA (config) #access-list ip permit *** 192.168.1.12
C. RTA (config) #dialer-group
D. RTA (config) #dialer-group
E. RTA (config) #dialer-list 1 protocol ip list 2
F. RTA (config) # dialer-list 2 protocol ip permit
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 50
Which two statements apply to a Cisco Catalyst switch with dual supervisor cards? (Choose two.)
A. The supervisor engines must be the same model.
B. Te active supervisor is selected by priority.
C. The active supervisor controls the system bus.
D. The relevant protocols are active on the standby supervisor.
E. The supervisor engines perform load sharing.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 51
What are two closely related standards specifically designed for data transmission over fiber optic networks? (Choose two.)
A. FDDI
B. SONET
C. ATM
D. DSL
E. ATM
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 52
**** autoselect feature of a Cisco access server allow?
A. the **** of IP packets for routing
B. a configured process to start automatically
C. serial interfaces to sense incoming modem calls
D. users to preselect which protocol they want to use
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 53
Which router command will display the number of BECN and FECN packet statistics for an interface?
A. show interfaces
B. show frame-relay pvc
C. show frame-relay map
D. show frame-relay Imi
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
Which technology allows a service provider to support overlapping customer VLAN Ids over transparent LAN services?
A. 802.1q tunneling
B. ATM
C. SDH
D. IP+Optical
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 55
What are four PPP options that are negotiated using LCP? (Choose four.)
A. callback
B. multilink
C. accounting
D. compression
E. authorization
F. authentication
G. rate adaptation
Correct Answer: ABDF
QUESTION 56
Which protocol uses UDP to exchange information between the client and server?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. AAA
D. LCP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
What is a VLAN?
A. a routed internetwork
B. a single broadcast domain
C. a group of switch ports that communicate through an RSM
D. a group of switch ports that are member of the same multicast group
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
In which two instances do you need to configure the encapsulation PPP command on the physical interface (BRI PRI, async)? (Choose two)
A. when the physical interface default is SLIP
B. when you are using rotary groups for outgoing calls
C. when you are using dialer pools and expect incoming calls
D. when you are configuring directly on the physical interface, and it needs to run ***
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 59
What is the default action of authentication when AAA is enabled but authentication is not set?
A. Allow a user to access all resources after login.
B. Disallow a user from access to all resources after login.
C. Record all access of resources and who long the user accessed each resources.
D. Not to record any access of resources the users accessed after login.
E. Allow any user to login without checking the authentication database.
F. Disallow any user from logging in with or without a valid username and password
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
Which Quality of Service technology classifies traffic ********* based on dynamically observed traffic flows?
A. FIFQ
B. WFQ
C. Custom Queuing
D. Priority Queuing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Which three statements are true about CHAP and PAP? (Choose three.)
A. PAP sends passwords in clear text.
B. PAP is vulnerable to playback (packet replay).
C. Routers always try CHAP before they try PAP.
D. PAP requires less processing and bandwidth than CHAP.
E. CHAP can use TACACS+ and RADIUS security servers. PAP **** use RADIUS servers.
F. CHAP uses a fixed value for each connection which is used *** time ***** occurs on a particular connection.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 62
Which switch command enables a trucking protocol that appends four ********* packet?
A. Switch (config-if)#switchport runk encapsulation dot Iq
B. Switch (config-if)#switchport runk encapsulation itef
C. Switch (config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation fddi
D. Switch (config-if)#switchport runk encapsulation isl
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 63
What protocol specified by RFC 1256 will allow an enabled IP host find a new router when a router becomes unavailable?
A. IRDP
B. SNMP
C. HSRP
D. VRRP
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 64
The dialer callback-secure command makes it so ______.
A. all dial back calls will use data encryption
B. only calls configured for call back can connect
C. only CHAP authenticated calls can connect through *****
D. only calls authenticated through a secure server ***** TACACS+) can connect through dial back
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
Which of the following technologies uses a Root Link ******?
A. BackboneFast
B. PortFast
C. UplinkFast
D. STP standard
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
What Cisco switch command will map VALNS 10 to 29 MST instance 1?
A. Switch(config)#vlan 10-20 instance1
B. Switch(config-mst)#vlan 10-20 instance 1
C. Switch(config)#instance 1 vlan 10-20
D. Switch(config-mst)#instance 1 vlan 10-20
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 67
Which is the advantage of running CHAP ****** AP?
A. It can authenticate ISDN dial**
B. It can send hashed passwords.
C. It can use a remote security server.
D. It can use a local security database.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
Which of the following are valid frame ********* controller? (Choose two.)
A. b8zs
B. sf
C. hdb3
D. esf
E. ami
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 69
What command will specify IEEE 802.1Q as the encapsulation method for trunk port on a Cisco IOS switch?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot 1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation is1
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport encapsulation dot 1q
D. Switch(config)#switchport 0/1 trunk encapsulation is1
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 70
What is the best descript **** the command ppp authentication pap when configured on both the calling and called router?
A. one-way authentication
B. two-way authentication
C. one-way encrypted authentication
D. two-way encrypted authentication
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 71
Which process plays a major role the creation of the CEF adjacency table?
A. Address Resolution Protocol RRP
B. PDU header rewrite
C. NetFlow switching
D. Hello packet exchange
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 72
Which command displays the number of successful and failed calls?
A. show dialer
B. show interface
C. show isdn q 931
D. show isdn active call
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 73
Multilink PPP can improve throughput and reduce latency by using which two features? (Choose two.)
A. adding 8 kbps to each B channel for 16 kbps in-band management
B. load balancing based on an XOR of the Layer 2 addresses in the packets
C. bandwidth aggregation by splitting packets and sending the fragments over parallel circuits.
D. Initializing the second B channel when the first B channel reaches a specified bandwidth utilization
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 74
What would incoming command set on a router? router (*********group-async 1 router (config)# 17
A. assign synchronous interfaces 1 through 7 to a signal master interface
B. assign *** privileges to interface async 1 through 7
C. ********* asynchronous interfaces 1 through 7
D. ****** virtual TTY interfaces 1 through 7
E. trunks asynchronous interfaces to increase modem bandwidth
F. creates a modem pool on interfaces 1 through 7
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Which IOS command specifies the point at which additional B channels are added to the Multilink ***
A. bandwidth
B. ppp multilink
C. demand threshold
D. dialer load-threshold
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
Which statements about Multilink PPP are true? (Chose two.)
A. MLP ******* with ISDN.
B. MLP *** packets and sends fragments over multiple links.
C. **** *** because MLP does not support sequencing.
D. **** round-robin algorithm to send unfragmented individual packets across multiple lines.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 77
Which two statements are true about Multilink PPP? (Choose two.)
A. It uses packets sequences and load calculation.
B. It has multi-vendor interoperability, as specified by RFC 1990.
C. It implements an indexing system that predicts character sequences.
D. It compresses the 20 byte IP header to a 2 ro 4 byte header to reduce overhead.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 78
Which statements are true about the data-link connection identifier (DLCI)? (Choose two.)
A. DLCI numbers need to be identical on all DTE devices.
B. DLCI numbers have local significance.
C. DLCI is assigned by Network Administrator.
D. DLCI is assigned by the Frame Relay service provider.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 79
You need to flexibility to move routers around in a large enterprise. You also need to spend a little as possible as you grow, but which router make the most economic sense for this type of growth?
A. Cisco 7200
B. Cisco 7300
C. Cisco 7400
D. Cisco 7500
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 80
Which implementation of SPAN is designed to support source ports, source VLANs, and destination ports across different switches?
A. RVSPAN
B. MSPAN
C. VSPAN
D. RSPAN
Correct Answer: D Exam B
QUESTION 1
What is the significance of the number 128 in the fair-queue 128 router command?
A. It is the priority value for the interface.
B. It is the minimum bandwidth level for the queue.
C. It is the maximum bandwidth allocation for the queue.
D. It is the number of queues that will be allocated from memory.
E. It is the maximum number of messages that will be queued for a traffic type.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2
Which two traffic queuing methods are enabled by default on Cisco routers? (Choose two)
A. FIFO
B. Priority
C. Custom
D. Weighted Fair
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 3
Which commands displays information on multilink bundles that are active?
A. show multilink
B. show ppp status
C. show mlppp status
D. show ppp multilink
E. show ppp negotiation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Multilink PPP can improve throughput and reduce latency by using which two features? (Choose two)
A. Adding 8 kbps to each B channel for 16 kbps in-band management.
B. Load balancing based on an XOR of the Layer 2 addresses in the packets.
C. Bandwidth aggregation by splitting packets and sending the fragments over parallel circuits.
D. Initializing the second B channel when the first B channel reaches a specified bandwidth utilization.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 5
What is the EIGRP multicast flow timer?
A. The timer after which EIGRP stops forwarding multicast data traffic.
B. The timeout timer after which EIGRP retransmits, unicasting the neighbor not in CR mode.
C. The time interval between consecutive received EIGRP hello intervals.
D. The time interval between consecutive transmitted EIGRP hello intervals.
E. The timeout timer after which EIGRP retransmits, unicasting the neighbor in CR mode.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
What is NOT a BGP attribute?
A. Origin
B. Weight
C. Local_pref
D. Community
E. Cluster_list
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 7
Which BGP attribute are “well known”?
A. Next-hop
B. Aggregator
C. AS-path
D. Atomic-aggregate
E. MED
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 8
With which two Cisco IOS Firewall security features is the authentication proxy compatible? (Choose two)
A. Cisco router
B. NAT
C. PAT
D. CBAC
E. RADIUS
F. TACACS+
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9
What does a half-open TCP session on the Cisco IOS Firewall mean?
A. Session was denied.
B. Firewall detected return traffic.
C. Session has not reached the established state.
D. Three-way handshake has been completed.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
What does CBAC on the Cisco IOS Firewall do with the application-layer protocol session information it gets from TCP and UDP packets?
A. Creates temporary openings in the firewall’s ACLs to allow return traffic and additional data connections for permissible sessions.
B. Provides additional visibility at intranet, extranet, and Internet perimeters.
C. Protects the network from internal and external attacks and threats.
D. Creates specific security polices for each user.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
How many VLANs can a single RSM support?
B. 16
C. 256
D. 1024
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
You enter the set ip route command to configure a default route in which platform?
A. Catalyst 2900XL
B. Catalyst 3500XL
C. Catalyst 5000
D. Catalyst 12000
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
What are three valid combinations of trunk modes for ports configured as link partners? (Choose three)
A. On/On
B. On/Auto
C. Auto/Auto
D. Desirable/Auto
E. Nonegotiate/Desirable
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 14
You must configure an Ethernet trunk between two Cisco switches. Which three statements about the trunk link are true? (Choose three)
A. The link may be 100 Mbps or faster.
B. The link may use ISL and be point-to-point.
C. The link may use the 802.1Q trunk protocol and be point-to-point.
D. The link may use the 802.10 trunk protocol, providing the SAID parameter is correctly set.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 15
Which command do you use to check the trunking mode on Catalyst 3500XL switches?
A. show trunk
B. show vtp mode
C. show interface
D. show interface switchport
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
What are two functions of VTP? (Choose two)
A. It propagates global VLAN information.
B. It maps mixed-media to Ethernet VLANs.
C. It sets trunk priority levels of adjacent switches.
D. It adjusts VLAN interswitch links for parallel load sharing.
E. It maps the noncontiguous switch fabric across the global VLAN.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 17
You are configuring a VLAN trunk on Fast Ethernet.
Which two trunking modes negotiate correctly when brining up a trunk link? (Choose two)
A. Off
B. Auto
C. Negotiate
D. Desirable
E. Nonegotiate
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 18
What are two methods to maintain a consistent VLAN database in a VTP domain? (Choose two)
A. Do not configure any switches as a VTP server.
B. Ensure that all switches not authorized to make changes are in Client mode.
C. Always configure switches using VTP server mode when adding them to the existing network.
D. Allow only one VTP server in each domain so that adding and deleting VLANs can be centralized to one location.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19
Which three actions configure multilayer switching on the multilayer switching route processor? (Choose three)
A. Enabling MLSP
B. Setting the MLS aging time
C. Including an external MLS-RP
D. Assigning a VLAN ID to an interface
E. Configuring the MLS management interface
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 20
What does an MLS-SE do when it receives an MLSP hello message?
A. Responds with another MLSP hello message.
B. Forwards it based on its multicast configuration.
C. Records the MAC addresses and VLAN IDs in its CAM table.
D. Discards it because MLSP messages are intended for MLS-RPs.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which statement about multilayer switching is true?
A. All Layer 3 routing logic is executed in ASICs on the switch.
B. The MLS switch software is enhanced to take over all functions of the router.
C. The switch caches the ARP table, routing table, and access lists with frequent updates from the router.
D. The MLS switch compares incoming packets with cached Layer 3 information and forwards it to the appropriate port.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
What is the default aging time for MLS cache entries for which a flow is established?
A. 3 seconds
B. 64 seconds
C. 128 seconds
D. 256 seconds
E. 300 seconds
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which router command shows the configuration of Fair Queuing?
A. show queue
B. show fair-queue
C. show queue config
D. show running-config
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which queuing method dynamically provides fair bandwidth allocation to all network traffic?
A. FIFO
B. WFQ
C. Priority
D. Custom
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which command displays the number of members in a bundle and the bundle to which a link belongs?
A. show multilink
B. show ppp status
C. show mlppp status
D. show ppp multilink
E. show ppp negotiation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Which two statements about Multilink PPP are true? (Choose two)
A. MLP is most effective with ISDN.
B. MLP splits packets and sends fragments over multiple links.
C. Timing is critical because MLP does not support sequencing.
D. MLP uses a round-robin algorithm to send unfragmented individual packets across multiple lines.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 27
BGP synchronization means: A. A BGP router can only advertise an eBGP-learned route if the route is in the BGP table with a metric of
0.
B. A BGP router can only advertise an eBGP-learned route if the route is in the routing table as an IGP route.
C. A BGP router can only advertise an iBGP-learned route if the route is in the routing table of all its iBGP neighbors.
D. A BGP router can only advertise an iBGP-learned route of the route is in the BGP table but not in the routing table.
E. A BGP router can only advertise an iBGP-learned route if the route is in the routing table as an IGP route.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 28
Indicating with (1) MED, (2) local-preference, (3) AS-path, (4) weight and (5) origincode, what is the correct chronological order of the previous five tiebreakers used by BGP during its own best route selection’s process?
A. 1,2,3,4,5
B. 4,1,2,5,3
C. 4,2,3,5,1
D. 4,3,1,5,2
E. 1,4,3,2,5
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
Where are access profiles stored with the authentication proxy features of the Cisco IOS Firewall?
A. PIX Firewall
B. Cisco router
C. Cisco VPN Concentrator
D. Cisco Secure ACS authentication server
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
Which three thresholds does CBAC on the Cisco IOS Firewall provide against DoS attacks? (Choose three)
A. Member of half-open session based upon time.
B. Total number of half-open TCP or UDP sessions.
C. Number of fully open sessions based upon time.
D. Number of half-open TCP-only sessions per host.
E. Total number of fully open TCP or UDP sessions.
F. Number of fully open TCP-only sessions per host.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 31
What does CBAC on the Cisco IOS Firewall do?
A. Creates specific security polices for each user.
B. Provides secure, per-application access control access network perimeters.
C. Provides additional visibility at intranet, extranet, and Internet perimeters.
D. Protects the network from internal attacks and threats.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Which command configures a default gateway on a Catalyst 3500XL switch?
A. Switch(config)# ip route ip address
B. Switch(enable) set ip route ip address
C. Switch(enable) ip route-default ip address
D. Switch(config)# ip default-gateway ip address
E. Switch(enable) set ip default-gateway ip address
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
You must configure an Ethernet trunk to operate in ISL mode between two Cisco switches. Which two are required at each end of the link for the trunk to operate correctly? (Choose two)
A. An identical VTP mode.
B. An identical speed/duplex.
C. An identical trunk negotiation parameter.
D. An identical trunk encapsulation parameter.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 34
How do you specify the trunking encapsulation mode for a port on a Catalyst 5000 switch?
A. set trunk
B. set vtp mode
C. set port mode
D. set encapsulation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two)
A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. Negotiation status
D. Management domain
E. Configuration revision number
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 36
Which two events happen when deleting a VLAN from a switch? (Choose two)
A. The configuration changes are immediately loaded to NVRAM.
B. The ports associated to the deleted VLAN remain in that VLAN until it is reset.
C. The ports associated to that VLAN remain inactive until it is assigned to another VLAN.
D. Switches in different VTP domains are notified of the changes and their databases are modified.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 37
Which action disables multilayer switching?
A. Enabling IP security
B. Clearing the MLS cache
C. Configuring an output access list.
D. Disabling TCP header compression
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
On a Catalyst 5000, what is the purpose of the show mls entry command?
A. Displays the contents of the MLS cache.
B. Shows the routing table for the MLS-RP.
C. Shows the total number of packets switched.
D. Displays all known MLS-RP and associated information.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
What is the purpose of multilayer switching XTAGs?
A. To associate an access list to a connection.
B. To assign a switch port to an incoming packet.
C. To distinguish different flows from a single source.
D. To distinguish the MAC addresses of multiple MLS-RPs.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Which multilayer switching concept determines how entries are created in the MLS cache?
A. HSRP
B. XTAGs
C. Trunking
D. Flow masks
E. Tag switching
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
Which three tasks should you perform when configuring Custom Queuing on a router? (Choose three)
A. Set custom queue filtering for an interface.
B. Configure the service threshold per queue.
C. Assign the custom queue list to an interface.
D. Globally enable custom queuing on the router.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 42
Which IOS queuing method ensures that certain protocols are transmitted before others?
A. FIFO
B. Priority
C. Custom
D. Weighted Fair
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 43
Which two statements are true about Multilink PPP? (Choose two)
A. It uses packet sequence and load calculation.
B. It has multi-vendor interoperability, as specified by RFC 1990.
C. It implements an indexing system that predicts character sequences.
D. It compresses the 20 byte IP header to a 2 or 4 byte header to reduce overhead.
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 44
The BGP backdoor command:
A. Changes the distance of an iBGP route to 20.
B. Changes the distance of an eBGP route to 200.
C. Changes the distance of an IGP route to 200.
D. Changes the distance of an IGP route to 20.
E. Does not change the distance of the route.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
What triggers the authentication proxy on the Cisco IOS Firewall?
A. User initiates inbound interface.
B. User initiated login through the firewall.
C. User initiates an FTP session through the firewall.
D. User initiates an HTTP session through the firewall.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 46
What is the default for the length of time, in seconds, a DNS name lookup session will still be managed after no activity is registered on the Cisco IOS Firewall?
A. 5
B. 30
C. 60
D. 3,600
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 47
Which device allows communication between VLANs?
A. IP translator
B. Route processor
C. Switching engine
D. VLAN interswitch
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 48
Which queuing method dynamically provides fair bandwidth allocation to all network traffic?
A. FIFO
B. WFQ
C. Priority
D. Custom
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
How do you specify the trunking encapsulation for a port on a Catalyst 3500XL switch?
A. Switch(config)#vtp mode
B. Switch(config-if)#set trunk
C. Switch(config-if)#encapsulation
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Which link is capable of transporting more than one VLAN through a single switch port?
A. Ethernet
B. 802.1d trunk
C. 802.1q trunk
D. multispan link
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 51
What is advertised by a Catalyst switch in a VTP domain?
A. The VLAN ID of all known VLANs, the management domain name, and the total number of trunk links in the switch.
B. The VLAN ID of all known VLANs, a 1-bit canonical format (CFI Indicator), and the switch configuration revision number.
C. The management domain name, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters.
D. A 2-byte TPID with a fixed value of 0x8100 for the management domain number, the switch configuration revision number, the known VLANs, and their specific parameters.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
On a Catalyst 5000, which command displays an MLS flow based on the IP address of the sending host?
A. show mls cache ip-address
B. show mls entry rp ip-address
C. show mls cache entry ip-address
D. show mls flow source ip-address
E. show mls entry source ip-address
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 53
Which three are primary components of the Cisco multilayer switching implementation? (Choose three)
A. Multilayer Trunking Protocol
B. Multilayer Switching Protocol
C. Multilayer Switching Cache Engine
D. Multilayer Switching Switch Engine
E. Multilayer Switching Route Processor
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 54
Which three tasks should you perform when configuring Custom Queuing on a router? (Choose three)
A. Assign a default custom queue.
B. Set custom queue filtering for a protocol.
C. Configure the service threshold per queue.
D. Globally enable custom queuing on the router.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 55
Which two debugs should you use to find the cause of an unsuccessful PAP negotiation? (Choose two)
A. debug ppp pap
B. debug ppp negotiation
C. debug authentication pap
D. debug ppp authentication
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 56
What is the best description for the command ppp authentication pap when configured on both the calling and called router?
A. One-way authentication
B. Two-way authentication
C. One-way encrypted authentication
D. Two-way encrypted authentication
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
What is the function of the command bgp deterministic-med?
A. It makes BGP compare MEDs between different ASs.
B. It makes default metric count as the worst possible metric.
C. It makes default metric count as the best possible metric.
D. It recorders the entries by neighbor AS.
E. It recorders the entries by MED.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
If not valid authentication entry exists in the authentication proxy, how does the proxy respond to the HTTP connection request?
A. Prompting the user for a username.
B. Prompting the user for a password.
C. Prompting the user for a username and password.
D. Sending an alert to the Cisco Secure ACS server.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 59
What odes the authentication proxy feature of the Cisco IOS Firewall allow network administrators to do?
A. Apply specific security polices on a per-user basis.
B. Use a general policy applied across multiple users.
C. Use a single security policy that is applied to an entire user group or subnet.
D. Keep user profiles active even where there is no active traffic from the authenticated users.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
You have a large, flat network that is experiencing congestion. You want to create VLANs with smaller
subnets on your Layer 2 switch to increase performance. Your only router is equipped with 10BaseT
Ethernet ports.
How can you accomplish the assigned task?
A. Use separate physical links from the router to the switch for each VLAN.
B. Move each new subnet to a separate router interface and route all traffic.
C. Enable ISL trunking on the router and pass all VLAN traffic on a single link.
D. Enable 802.1Q trunking on the router to pass all VLAN traffic on a single link.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 61
Which trunking mode prevents DISL or DTP frame from being sent out of a trunk link?
A. On
B. Auto
C. Desirable
D. Nonegotiate
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 62
Which command do you use to check the trunking mode on Catalyst 5000 switches?
A. show port
B. show trunk
C. show vtp domain
D. show encapsulation
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 63
You have several VLAN trunks in Auto and Off modes.
You are entering a new port. You want the port to be in Permanent Trunking mode.
Which mode should you use?
A. Off
B. Auto
C. Desirable
D. Nonegotiate
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 64
Which interface configuration command assigns a VLAN ID to a route processor interface?
A. mls vlan vlan-id-number
B. set mls vlan vlan-id-number
C. mls rp vlan-id vlan-id-number
D. set mls vtp-domain vlan-id number
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 65
If you want Layer 4 information to be included in the MLS cache entries, which flow mask should you use?
A. IP-flow
B. Destination-IP
C. Source-Destination-IP
D. Layer 4 information is included by default.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
The multilayer switching process is based on which concept?
A. Switch once, route many
B. Route once, switch many
C. Route when you can, switch when you must
D. Separate the functions of routing and switching
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 67
Which router command configures Weighted Fair queuing on a router?
A. router(config)# bandwidth 56
B. router(config)# fair-queue 64
C. router(config)# priority fair 8
D. router(config-if)# fair-queue 128
E. router(config-if)# priority fair 16
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 68
Which IOS command specified the point at which additional B channels are added to the Multilink bundle?
A. bandwidth
B. ppp multilink
C. demand threshold
D. dialer load-threshold
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
A company has 2 border routers running BGP to 2 different ISP’s. They want to control which path inbound
traffic takes without the use of communities.
What is the most important consideration?
A. Metric
B. MED
C. AS-path prepending
D. Weight
E. Local preference
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 70
What happens in the aggressive mode of the CBAC on the Cisco IOS Firewall?
A. CBAC deletes all half-open sessions.
B. CBAC re-initiates half-open sessions.
C. CBAC completed all half-open sessions, making them fully open sessions.
D. CBAC deletes half-open sessions as required to accommodate new connection requests.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
You are configuring a VLAN interface on an internal route processor. You defined the VLAN interface. What should you do next?
A. Define the network number.
B. Define the default gateway.
C. Assign IP routing to the interface.
D. Assign a unique IP address to the interface.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
You are configuring a VLAN trunk over Fast Ethernet.
Which trunking mode enables the port to become a trunk if the link partner requests it?
A. Auto
B. Negotiate
C. Designate
D. Nonegotiate
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
You have changed the VTP domain on all your switches. You want to add an interface to the new VTP
domain.
Which command should you use on your external route processor?
A. set domain vtp
B. mls rp vtp-domain
C. set mls vtp-domain
D. mls ext domain vtp
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
Which command on the Catalyst 5000 MLS-SE displays the ID of an attached MLSRP router?
A. show mls
B. show mls id
C. show mls entry ip-address
D. show mls entry rp ip-address
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 75
Which Catalyst 5000 command causes short-lived flows to age out of the MLS cache more quickly?
A. ip mls agefast
B. ip mls agingtime
C. set mls aginingtime
D. set mls agingtime fast
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
For what three conditions are the traffic priorization features in Cisco IOS best suited? (Choose three)
A. Low-speed data links that have no congestion.
B. Bursty WAN links experiencing only temporary congestion.
C. A connection that has multiple protocols sharing a single data path.
D. A Frame Relay connection that experiences utilization from 10 to 40%.
E. A DDR connection that is always connected and runs at 70 to 100% utilization most of the day.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 77
Which events cause the EIGRP neighbor relationship to be restarted?
A. Issuing the clear ip route command.
B. Receiving an update packet with Init flag set from a known, already established neighbor relationship.
C. Receiving an update packet from an unknown neighbor.
D. Clearing the IP cache.
E. Clearing the IP EIGRP neighbor relationship.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 78
What does authentication proxy on the Cisco IOS Firewall do?
A. Creates specific authorization policies for each user with Cisco Secure ACS, dynamic, per-user security and authorization.
B. Provides additional visibility at intranet, extranet, and Internet perimeters.
C. Creates specific security policies for each user with Cisco Secure ACS, dynamic,
D. Provides secure, per-application access control across network perimeters.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
You must configure an Ethernet trunk to operate in 802.1Q mode between two Cisco switches. What can cause the trunk to operate incorrectly?
A. An identical duplex at each end of the link.
B. An identical speed at each end of the link.
C. A different native VLAN parameter at each end of the link.
D. A compatible trunking mode shared by the ports connecting the link at either end.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 80
You want to change VLAN information WITHOUT modifying other switches in the same VTP domain. To which mode should VTP be set?
A. Client
B. Local
C. Server
D. Transparent
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 81
Which three are contained in MLS-RP advertisements? (Choose three)
A. Topology changes
B. ARP cache changes
C. Access list information
D. Route additions and deletions
E. The MAC addresses used by the MLS-RP interfaces
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 82
Which IP multicast addresses does OSPF use?
A. 224.0.0.1 and 224.0.0.2
B. 224.0.0.4 and 224.0.0.5
C. 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6
D. 224.0.0.2 and 255.255.255.255
E. 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 83
Which command line should you use to configure a port as a trunk port on a Catalyst 3500XL switch?
A. Switch(config)#vtp mode
B. Switch(config-if)#set trunk
C. Switch(config-if)#encapsulation
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Which command enables multilayer switching globally on the MLS-RP?
A. mls rp ip
B. mls enable
C. mls rp vtp-domain
D. mls rp management-interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 85
What is the result of applying an outgoing access list on an interface?
A. It results in no action taken by the MLS-SE.
B. It causes all incoming packets to be processed by the MLS-RP.
C. It purges entries for flows on that interface and does not record new entries.
D. It forces the MLS-SE to purge all MLS cache entries and to re-learn existing flows.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 86
Which command displays the number of successful and failed calls?
A. show dialer
B. show interface
C. show isdn q931
D. show isdn active call
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 87
What does the Cisco IOS Firewall authentication proxy allow network administrators to do?
A. Allow users to log into the network.
B. Apply a general policy across multiple users.
C. Apply specific security polices on a per-user basis.
D. Apply a single security policy to an entire user group.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
When does the MLS-SE create a candidate MLS cache entry? (Choose two)
A. When it receives a TCP SYN packet.
B. When an MSL cache entry did not exist for the flow.
C. When the frame was destined for the MLS-RP MAC address.
D. After it forwards a pre-determined number of frames for the same flow.
E. When it receives an MLSP message from the MLS-RP to create a candidate entry.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 89
What type of EIGRP packets carry the Init flag embedded?
A. Hello
B. Update
C. Query
D. Reply
E. Ack
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 90
When used with the IOS Firewall, what does CBAC use for inspection rules to configure on per-application protocol basis?
A. Alerts and audit trails
B. ODBC filtering
C. Tunnel, transport modes, or both
D. Stateful failover
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 91
Which two parameters are distributed by VTP advertisements? (Choose two)
A. VTP mode
B. VLAN names
C. VLAN description
D. VTP configuration revision number
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 92
Which statement is true about VTPs and VLAN consistency?
A. Routers assist in propagating VTP information to ensure consistency.
B. A switch can reside in multiple VTP domains to ensure no duplication.
C. A switch listens to VTP advertisements from its own domain and other domains.
D. A switch listens to VTP advertisements from its own domain and ignores other domains.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 93
Which command removes certain VLANs from an existing trunk link?
A. set vlan
B. clear vtp
C. clear port
D. clear trunk
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 94
You have just been given a large transport network to configure. No interface on the network is below DS-
3. There are four OC-3 POS interfaces, two OC-12 POS interfaces, two OC-3 ATM, two DS-3s and one
GigE required at each router location.
Which router can support this one chassis and get 10 routers in a 40 RU rack?
A. Cisco 7200
B. Cisco 7300
C. Cisco 7400
D. Cisco 7500
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 95
Which two routers support the use of Etherswitch modules and provide power to IP phones with the use of an external power supply? (Choose two)
A. Cisco 2650
B. Cisco 2691
C. Cisco 3725
D. Cisco 3745
Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 96
Which feature of the EZ VPN Remote makes it desirable to have Proxy DNS server support for the PCs attached to the VPN?
A. Client mode with connect auto.
B. Client mode with connect manual.
C. Network Extension mode with connect auto.
D. Network Extension mode with connect manual.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 97
The NAT/PAT translation and access-list configurations that are created by the CiscoEasy VPN Remote
feature are not written to either the startup-configuration or running-configuration files.
Which two commands can you use to display these configurations? (Choose two)
A. show access-lists
B. show IP NAT Statistics
C. show IP NAT Translations
D. show access-list configuration
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 98
You work as a network consultant at Certkiller . You have been asked by a client to help company employees connect with an ISP so that they can gain access to the Internet. The employees will use VPN software on their PCs to access the corporate network through the Internet. No cable, DSL, or ISDN is available since these employees work in very remote locations. The company still wants continuous access and are willing to pay for an analog phone line for each employee. Which Cisco 800 series router should you recommend?
A. Cisco 803
B. Cisco 804
C. Cisco 805
D. Cisco 806
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 99
You work as a network consultant at Certkiller . You have been asked by a client to help company employees connect with an ISP so that they can gain access to the Internet. The employees will use VPN software on their PCs to access the corporate network through the Internet. No cable or DSL is available so you must use ISDN. The telco does NOT supply NT1s, there will be two PCs connecting and a printer at each location, and each location will have an analog fax machine. Which Cisco 800 series router should you recommend?
A. Cisco 801
B. Cisco 802
C. Cisco 803
D. Cisco 804
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 100
EZ VPN is configured in Client mode with manual connection.
What is the behavior of the router when the VPN connection is down but the router is still operational and
attached to the Internet?
A. The router has no connection since the VPN is down.
B. The router will permit Internet access but continues to attempt to attach to the VPN.
C. The user cannot get out to the Internet because the router continues to attempt to attach to the VPN.
D. The router works normally and the VPN connection is dormant until the user initiates the VPN again.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 101
You are using the CRWS tool to set up EZ VPN.
Which type of connection type for the VPN will be created?
A. Manual
B. Automatic
C. Temporary
D. Permanent
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 102
What is a reason for creating VLANs on switches?
A. To simplify management
B. To simplify configuration
C. To enhance Layer 2 functionality
D. To create smaller broadcast domains
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 103
Where can you modify a VLAN name on a switch? (Choose two)
A. When the VTP mode on the switch is client.
B. When the VTP mode on the switch is server.
C. When the VTP mode on the switch is transparent.
D. When the VTP mode on the switch is pass-through.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 104
What are the three default port settings in a Catalyst switch? (Choose three)
A. The MTU is set to 1500.
B. The speed is set to 100.
C. The duplex mode is set to full.
D. All ports are assigned to VLAN 1.
E. The VLAN type is set to Ethernet.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 105
Certkiller requires a device that can connect 26 users in one building and can connect to their main
campus via EIGRP.
Which device supports this capability?
A. 4000 with SUP 1
B. 6500 with SUP 1a
C. 2950 with SI software
D. 3550 with EMI software
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 106
Using the Cisco three level design strategy, how many tiers are present in small campus networks?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 107
What does the autoselect feature of a Cisco access server allow?
A. The selection of IP packets for routing .
B. A configured process to start automatically.
C. Serial interfaces to sense incoming modem calls.
D. Users to preselect which protocol they want to use.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 108
Which two Cisco products provide gigabit Ethernet and gigabit EthernelChannel to the backbone? (Choose two)
A. 2950
B. 3550
C. 3700
D. 4000
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 109
Which three benefits do both dial-up and broadband solutions provide? (Choose three)
A. Flexibility
B. Affordable cost
C. Easy setup and administration
D. Easy access from retail shopping areas
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 110
The Catalyst 2950 allows for future expansion through its _________.
A. Modularization
B. IOS capabilities
C. Internal AIM slot
D. Gigabit Ethernet ports
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 111
Which are dedicated WAN design types?
A. DSL, SMDS, and ISDN
B. Modems, X.25, and ISDN
C. Cable, SMDS, and modem
D. Leased line, Frame Relay, and voice/data
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 112
What trends influence the market for more powerful WANs?
A. Speed and distance
B. Prioritization and speed
C. Speed and integration of voice and data
D. Integration of voice and video, and the need for prioritization.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 113
Which Cisco product supports multilayer switching across SONET?
A. 3550
B. 6500
C. 7600
D. 8500
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 114
Which two routing protocols does the FWSM support? (Choose two)
A. ISIS
B. BGP
C. Static
D. OSPF
E. EIGRP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 115
How many security levels are available on the Firewall Services module?
A. 1
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
E. 1000
Correct Answer: D
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